precedence of && (was: precedence of ?:)
Doug Gwyn
gwyn at smoke.BRL.MIL
Wed Sep 13 17:57:24 AEST 1989
In article <3236 at solo10.cs.vu.nl> maart at cs.vu.nl (Maarten Litmaath) writes:
>Then how about the following, Doug? "There is no legal way to parse..."
> 0 && i = 0
Sounds good to me; there is no legal way to parse
0 && i = 0
as
(0 && i) = 0
but there is a legal parse as
0 && (i = 0)
Why did you bring that example up? Are we using it wrong in the
Standard, or what?
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